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alukyane t1_j29eswo wrote

Reply to comment by M8dude in There’s just as many numbers between 0 and 1 as there is from 0 to infinity. by Resinate1

(1/x)-1 is correct for going from (0,1) to (0,infty).

Your function would send the interval (0,1) to (1/2,1) in a weird reversed/distorted way (check endpoints to confirm).

And the op is most likely talking about cardinalities, not the counting measure, if we're nitpicking. :)

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M8dude t1_j29ftq5 wrote

yes, you're right, my mistake, but to justify, (1/x)-1 is the inverse of 1/(x+1), so there we are :P

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