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valgrind_error t1_iwrk4yn wrote

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TheGreatBelow023 t1_iwrrbz7 wrote

A non-aggression treaty with Germany was also signed with 6 other countries by 1940.

And it was over Poland; a country that only existed again for 15 years by that point.

Not justifying it, just stating the facts.

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valgrind_error t1_iwrufsq wrote

As was I. Just wanted to make sure people weren't confused into thinking the communists were interested in the well being of any of the countries they "liberated." After all, they proceeded to oppress those very same countries for another half century.

EDIT: Actually, thinking about the age of various nations at that time, how old were the Third Reich and the USSR when they partitioned Poland? And is it somehow more legitimate in your view to partition a country if it's newer?

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TheGreatBelow023 t1_iwvpo25 wrote

It’s like saying Maine isn’t a part of the US. Ukrainian Red Army soldiers fought valiantly against the fascists.

The nationalists who participated in the Holocaust and joined invading fascists were overthrown.

I call that a liberation.

RE Poland, you had Polish communists and socialists who wanted to join the USSR.

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valgrind_error t1_iwvycke wrote

You're not answering the question. There were Polish communists who wanted to join the USSR, just as you yourself pointed out there were Polish fascists who wanted to participate in the Holocaust. Neither of those points have any bearing on whether Poland was somehow rightfully part of the Third Reich or the USSR. Also not sure where Ukrainian Red Army soldiers come into this. Of course there were valiant Ukrainians in the Red Army, it was a multiethnic army of an imperialist state. This is one of the many reasons why Russia acting like it is the true successor to the USSR and sole claimant to its various achievements is an absolute farce. But this is a red herring.

I genuinely am confused with you bringing Maine into this discussion. Are you claiming that the relationship between the Second Polish Republic and the USSR, two separate countries formed at roughly the same time, are the same as a US state and the US federal government? That only makes sense if you already subscribe to the USSR's blatantly imperialist ambitions in eastern Europe.

Finally, a country can "liberate" another from one evil overlord and then proceed to brutally subjugate it. Those aren't mutually exclusive. I wouldn't call it a true liberation, though, if you're just replacing one yoke for another (even if the new one is less overtly genocidal towards the "liberated" people in question). That just allows any regime to use whataboutism to excuse away their own issues.

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