Submitted by LoudLemming t3_zs0oby in Washington
earthcaretaker315 t1_j15x6pt wrote
I couldnt of said it better. Great job.
jthanson t1_j16fpkz wrote
As a matter of fact, you could. For example, you could have used the word "have" instead of the incorrect homophone "of."
[deleted] t1_j16maau wrote
[deleted]
earthcaretaker315 t1_j19jhoi wrote
Your use of homophone doesn't apply here.
homophone
noun
ho·mo·phone ˈhä-mə-ˌfōn ˈhō-
1
grammar : one of two or more words pronounced alike but different in meaning or derivation or spelling (such as the words to, too, and two)
2
: a character or group of characters pronounced the same as another character or group
jthanson t1_j19qly8 wrote
Although I appreciate your pedantry, the use of homophone is appropriate here. Although “have” and “of” are not homophones when pronounced correctly, they are indistinguishable in colloquial speech, especially in American English. The incorrect usage of “of” in place of “have” is a phenomenon of auditory language experience. In that respect, it is homophony that is to blame.
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