Submitted by KissMyAFF t3_yrtsd5 in askscience
The way I understand it, the SRY gene is found on the Y chromosome, and it encodes for TDF. This, in turn, leads to prenatal testosterone and AMH. The prenatal testosterone lead to the development of the male reproductive system from the Wolffian duct while AMH leads to the disintegration of the Mullerian duct. Conversely, if there is no Y chromosome and no upsurge of testosterone or presence of AMH, the Wolffian duct disintegrates while the Mullerian duct develops into the female reproductive tract.
In that case, it seems like people with XO genotypes have no Y chromosome = no TDF = no AMH/high levels of T, so they should develop ovaries. What am I missing?
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EDIT: Thank you so much everyone! This was super interesting. Just a follow-up, if anyone's still lurking here - would people with Turner's syndrome be more susceptible to X-linked diseases?
F0xFiree t1_ivyf7et wrote
Uh hi I actually have turners syndrome. Mosaic turners to be more specific. This means some of my genes are missing an X chromosome and some have an xxxy thing. I had two ovaries. My left was abnormal; it was described as streaked, flat and generally not formed and was probably nonfunctional. It was removed during the c section delivery of my youngest child. My right one however works just fine. Proof for that is that I’ve conceived naturally and have two kids to show for it.
Due to my genetic make up though, having ovaries when having an xxxy chromosome make up gives me a much higher chance of developing tumors so my remaining ovary is being plucked out next week. Hope this info from someone’s personal experience helps!