Submitted by AutoModerator t3_zxbnwz in askscience
atomfullerene t1_j20xh7p wrote
Reply to comment by SereneDreams03 in Ask Anything Wednesday - Economics, Political Science, Linguistics, Anthropology by AutoModerator
The old saw is that a language is a dialect with an army. Basically, there's a lot of overlap between the two, and the difference isn't so much technical as it is political/social.
gdcunt t1_j21krt9 wrote
Seconding this!
difference is political/social/cultural rather than linguistic....
(you try tell Serbian ppl they're speaking a dialect of Croatian, or a Hindi person theyre speaking a dialect of Urdu... stabbed ... ask them if they understand the other, tho, they'll say of course, it's the same language you moron... stabbed)
(linguists have never agreed on any linguistic criteria that would define the difference)
TL;DR you're getting stabbed
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