Submitted by maugustus t3_zyricz in askscience
Verlepte t1_j2az2se wrote
Reply to comment by obnoxiousbutquiet in Before Newton, how did people explain falling apples? by maugustus
It's fundamentally very different. In Newtonian physics there's an attractive force that causes for instance a rock to fall down to the earth. In Aristotelian physics there's no attractive force, but the rock strives towards the earth and therefore falls down towards it.
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