Submitted by ricarleite2 t3_10m715v in books
Since every single subreddit dedicated to Sherlock Holmes seems to be about the TV show and not about the books (no one reads), then perhaps here might be the place.
Why didn't Stapleton simply fucking shoot Henry Baskerville? Why go through the trouble of creating the dog situation again? He got lucky with Charles. Just invite him in and shoot him. There's no forensics in Victorian England. They won't know. Plant a gun and make it look like a suicide. I don't know.
I_am_1E27 t1_j61bc5g wrote
Out of universe, part of the reason is because Sir Arthur Conan Doyle got inspiration from a story about an English nobleman. He likely would have begun the story with the idea of using a spectral dog to take the blame and then written from there, resulting in the unclear reasoning behind Stapleton's actions that you're asking about.
In universe, I have no idea.