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SuperTekkers t1_j7b1anz wrote

The concept of applying a linear line of best fit to such a random dataset is really dumb

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Independent-Ad-514 OP t1_j7b7utf wrote

It is not random. There is -0.31 correlation

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Much_Mobile_2224 t1_j7bthqc wrote

An r of 0.31 is an r^2 of 0.096. Having an r^2 less than 0.4 is hard to make an argument you really have anything

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StrangerAttractor t1_j7bt7vr wrote

I could generate really random data, and more often than not get something like this correlation out of it.

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PBlove t1_j7bz0zd wrote

These is a r of 0.8 for black and Hispanic population as a percentage to homicide rate.

Would you accept that as causal?

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deletion-imminent t1_j7ccjov wrote

There can be a correlation without there being a direct causal correlation

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PBlove t1_j7eo71y wrote

Yes. That's what the guy above me is talking about. Because the fitness of the line is low, you likely should not put much stake in a low correlation.

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deletion-imminent t1_j7fkb5a wrote

> Yes. That's what the guy above me is talking about. Because the fitness of the line is low, you likely should not put much stake in a low correlation.

No, these are different. There can be causation with low correlation. But high levels of correlation doesn't necessitate causation.

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Independent-Ad-514 OP t1_j7bzogm wrote

I am not American, but I believe that statistics are important and we should pay attention to them.

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PBlove t1_j7eo3es wrote

So how would you solve the crime issue knowing it's single mother and or racial components?

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