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PBlove t1_j7bz0zd wrote

Reply to comment by Independent-Ad-514 in Economic freedom (Index of Economic Freedom) vs Income inequality (Gini coefficient) in 153 countries [OC] by Independent-Ad-514

These is a r of 0.8 for black and Hispanic population as a percentage to homicide rate.

Would you accept that as causal?

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deletion-imminent t1_j7ccjov wrote

There can be a correlation without there being a direct causal correlation

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PBlove t1_j7eo71y wrote

Yes. That's what the guy above me is talking about. Because the fitness of the line is low, you likely should not put much stake in a low correlation.

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deletion-imminent t1_j7fkb5a wrote

> Yes. That's what the guy above me is talking about. Because the fitness of the line is low, you likely should not put much stake in a low correlation.

No, these are different. There can be causation with low correlation. But high levels of correlation doesn't necessitate causation.

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Independent-Ad-514 OP t1_j7bzogm wrote

I am not American, but I believe that statistics are important and we should pay attention to them.

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PBlove t1_j7eo3es wrote

So how would you solve the crime issue knowing it's single mother and or racial components?

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