Submitted by teamongered t3_10iowxk in dataisbeautiful
kmeci t1_j5j96cp wrote
Reply to comment by glitch241 in Racial diversity in top tech & biotech companies [OC] by teamongered
Because diversity doesn't equal number of immigrants and/or skin colors. What's more "diverse", when your neighbor has identical culture but a different skin tone or when he doesn't even speak the same language?
In both ethnic and linguistic diversity rankings US doesn't even reach top 50: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_ranked_by_ethnic_and_cultural_diversity_level
glitch241 t1_j5jcuwn wrote
Moving the goal post fallacy. You established that number of languages and ethnic groups present was the criteria for measuring diversity. Once your criteria was challenged, you then introduced a new methodology based on a researcher using fractionalization, a methodology that happens to achieve your conclusion.
The US is a very diverse country given its constant flow of immigrants and lack of lengthy history or genealogy. Can you claim other places are more diverse that have a bunch of tribes and ethnicities that belong to greater ethnic and linguistic families? Sure I guess. Certainly can’t try that claim in most countries though. Most are low immigration, low minority counties. European counties are basically ethnostates that don’t come out and say it. But the numbers and immigration policies don’t lie.
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