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LittlekidLoverMScott t1_j9wxlr3 wrote

2 generations is 1970. The industrialization of food in the 1800s is where it shifted.


fh3131 t1_j9xl64t wrote

Yes and no, depending on what we're talking about. I was referring to abundance of high calorie foods. Firstly, the industrialisation you mention only applies to certain societies and wasn't the case for many developing countries until very recently.

Secondly, even in developing countries, it only applied to certain classes. In the 19th century, famine was not uncommon in Europe. Ireland famously lost 10% of its population in the mid-19th century during the potato famines. If you look at photos from the 1920s or 30s, the vast majority of people were lean and food was not plentiful for farmers and labourers. Many European countries had food rationing on certain items (like sugar) after both world wars i.e. into the 1950s.

It's only since then that we've had this glut of reliable food, no major (global) wars, jobs becoming less physical and so on. And that's when the obesity rates spiked, and not before these 2-3 generations.