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No-Eggplant-5396 OP t1_j9w562m wrote

My issue is with the concept of partial ownership. It makes no sense to me. Do the legal definitions occasionally apply to a co-owner and occasionally not apply to a co-owner? Or rather, the legal definitions hold absolutely but rather pertain to a more abstract interpretation of the original property?

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lowflier84 t1_j9wc32v wrote

I think where you're getting wrapped around the axle is that you are imagining co-owners as being able to exercise the full rights of ownership independent of each other, and this is not the case. In this situation, there is usually a contract that exists that will define the rights of each co-owner, how decisions about the property are made, how disputes will be resolved, etc.

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No-Eggplant-5396 OP t1_j9wotz1 wrote

Is there a minimum right? Granted co-owners can't exercise full rights of ownership. Is there a minimum right that cannot be partitioned between legal persons?

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lowflier84 t1_j9wwc84 wrote

No, there is no minimum. It's completely dependent upon the contract that defines the terms.

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No-Eggplant-5396 OP t1_j9x075l wrote

So hypothetically, one could own a share of a share of a company depending on the contract?

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