Submitted by noobia0009 t3_126wvcb in explainlikeimfive
Putt-Blug t1_jebdail wrote
Reply to comment by [deleted] in ELI5: how can the female to male population be almost 1:1 but men die more than women and the birth rate of men and women is almost equal (and the fisher principle doesn’t make sense because men have a higher death rate so how can it even out)? by noobia0009
To elaborate... I don't have the source but only about 50% of the male population is reproducing anyway so the more men dying in war/etc... just get swallowed up in the 50% not reproducing
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