IrishFlukey t1_iu8bor6 wrote
Easily. They are different skills. Babies learn to speak long before they can read or write, so if they never went to school, they could speak, but not read or write.
Kingjoe97034 t1_iu8cc2u wrote
This. My four year old was a solid speaker long before he could read the language.
Imagine if no one bothered to teach him. Or he grew up on a farm with parents who grew up on a farm…
bartolemew t1_iu8gliw wrote
Are you saying farmers are uneducated and don’t go to school? SMH
Kingjoe97034 t1_iu8gp8u wrote
No, I mean that historically, there is way less need to read on a farm than in a law office. I’m thinking 1820, not 2020.
ZacQuicksilver t1_iubzv9h wrote
Actually, literacy is actually a lot higher in historical England than the records indicate. This is because "literacy" was measured in Latin, not English; and as such there were a significant (likely over 25% of the population) number of "illiterate" people who could read and write English at the equivalent of a modern 8th-grade level.
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