Submitted by [deleted] t3_z6raz6 in explainlikeimfive
breckenridgeback t1_iy2x6ze wrote
Reply to comment by QuantumR4ge in ELI5: What does it mean by time slowing down at event horizon? by [deleted]
If you were aboard the falling ship, you wouldn't notice anything unusual, though, because all the processes you'd use to observe clocks would also be slowed down. Time dilation is always something you observe in others, not yourself.
QuantumR4ge t1_iy2z05q wrote
That isn’t the reason, the reason you don’t observe time dilation in your own frame is because as an in-falling observer you are not accelerating or in motion (you always see yourself at rest), so for both the in-falling and outside observer to agree on the local speed of light, they must disagree on space and time. (Although a specific combination of these is conserved)
The in falling observer actually can’t even define where the event horizon is
[deleted] OP t1_iy31dy4 wrote
[deleted]
QuantumR4ge t1_iy328gn wrote
An in falling observer is a non accelerating observer by definition. An in falling observer is inertial. You are viewing the world from a newtonian perspective. The proper acceleration of an inertial observer, is 0, an observer acting under only gravity is inertial, they are following a geodesic, that’s literally why they are falling. This is essentially what the equivalence principle is telling you. There is no “gravitational force “ pulling you.
In Kruskal-szekeres coordinates you can clearly see the event horizon is not defined for the in falling observer. The event horizon is not defined for observers following a geodesic
You are getting confused here, for reference my specialism is in general relativity, this is the field of research i do.
_CZakalwe_ t1_iy399v2 wrote
While clocks on falling ship will (technically) remain the same, tidal forces would draw you , clocks and the ship into spaghetti. That would be highly unusual for casual ship obsever.
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