Submitted by theembryo t3_zzitid in explainlikeimfive
FartyPants69 t1_j2d6b4m wrote
Reply to comment by Nooms88 in ELI5: How did we realise the mind is in the brain? by theembryo
And that makes intuitive sense, but why does that feeling persist when I'm lying in bed in a dark, quiet, still room? My senses are basically idling, very little input, but my "center" remains in my head. I think something has to account for that aside from sensory input.
-Teltar t1_j2dciv5 wrote
There's probably more to it, but the fact that you're using your head senses the majority of the time could cause the sensation you are describing as the norm.
Even the smaller amount of time you're lying in bed in the dark, you will still be using your hearing and smell.
It's interesting to think about though.
Nooms88 t1_j2e1j7t wrote
Because you're used to it from birth. I wonder what someone who was born blind and deaf would feel.
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