Submitted by **MEGA_AEOIU792** t3_10kgr8r
in **headphones**

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**SoNic67**
t1_j5tfqxd wrote

Reply to comment by **audioen** in **what information an impulse response graph provides about headphones?** by **MEGA_AEOIU792**

Limit the mathematical model only to a couple of terms of the series, and see how "lossless" your transformation is.

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**TaliskerBay22**
t1_j5tvung wrote

I do not understand, your comment can you explain? Only thing I am saying is that the impulse response of the headphone in this graph is known to infinity as the assumption that it will continue to be 0 after the end of the plotted data is certainly a valid one. So we can pad with 0s this graph as much as we want. On the other hand the time 0 in this impulse wrong seems to be arbitrary. If somebody can pass me the data of the graph I can certainly do an FFT and get the Freq response.

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**SoNic67**
t1_j5uqz7w wrote

I am talking about people that say the FFT is equal to impulse response because... math.

FFT implies infinite bandwidth.

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**TaliskerBay22**
t1_j5vuc8d wrote

The maximum frequency of a fast Fourier transform is 1 over the sampling interval or the sampling frequency. As shown in this example https://uk.mathworks.com/help/matlab/ref/fft.html

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**SoNic67**
t1_j5vxaxg wrote

Nope.

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