Submitted by MeatballDom t3_11fm7qk in history
tigre200 t1_jalsnb9 wrote
Reply to comment by Bentresh in The difficulties of translating gender in ancient texts by MeatballDom
I would also like to add that the practice of reffering a queen in her own right as "king" was also common up to the middle ages. Examples include the first swedish queen, reffered to as "Kung" instead of "Drottning"
LateInTheAfternoon t1_jalvomv wrote
Are you thinking of queen Margret? She was technically neither king nor queen of Sweden, only regent (apart from the time she and her husband were king and queen of Sweden for a brief period around 1360). Her son and later her grand nephew were the kings, and she was a regent during their minorities (and beyond in the case of Eric of Pomerania). To your point, however, her position as regent was nevertheless most commonly refered to by a male word: "husbonde".
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