Here is my larger question. My wife is a historian. Dual PHDs her specialty is Medieval European History and Literature. She reads at a functional level Latin, Greek, French, German, Portuguese, and Russian. She is one of the most brilliant humans I have ever met. In the 10 years she went from HS to 2 PHDs and the 20 years of experience since as a historian and conservationist, she has never mentioned any of this. Not once. It sees to only exist in today’s world among todays gender questions. Are we not a little conceited to assume and insert our beliefs into the writings of long dead people? Does their own intent and the messages they wanted to convey to their audience matter? Just a humble man’s thoughts.