Submitted by UM_Chapter_Champ t3_y79irn in history
Hello all!
I’m in a debate with some friends about horses and how common they were. I’m taking the stance that horse ownership was pretty Common in a lot of cultures and they were part of everyday life for most people. They are taking the stance that only the elite and Nobel had horses. I understand that in Europe during the time of kings and colonial America horses were most commonly owned by the wealthy. But even at that my understanding was that most people who had a farm even if it was small had a horse. I’m also making the argument that the tribes and nomads of Eurasia where horses first became domesticated would have had a culture where every warrior would have their own horse. I’m not really finding great results on the Google so I figured someone here may be able to help point me in the right direction or have some cool knowledge to share. Thank you!
edit: a lot of awesome, well thought out responses here and I appreciate you guys!
Regulai t1_iste7ds wrote
Extremly ammbiguous question but:
So until around the 14-1500's ranching and mass animal availability wasnt very big. There are lots of specific regional exceptions but on average they wernt that common. Plains tribes often had more animals due to being easier then farming in grasslands and more central to culture and life.
In say europe though a family might have had a single horse or cow or otherwise to do labour but it would primarily have been that a beast of burden. Often times families would share communal animals.
After the renisance ranching became more common and beasts of burden became incressingly cheaper and more available. By the time of american colonisation it was much more likely for every farm to have at least one beast of burden and by the 1800's there were more horses then farmworkers. Nearing the 1900's new technology saw horse population explode shortly before tractors started to replace them.