Why, in the last two centuries, have women become to be considered less sexual than men, if, throughout history, they were believed to have a much higher libido? Submitted by [deleted] t3_ykor9y on November 3, 2022 at 1:39 AM in history 29 comments 5
problembearbruno t1_iuwbe4n wrote on November 3, 2022 at 2:22 PM Well, otherwise men cause their own problems. It must be their lack of agency. Permalink 1
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