Why, in the last two centuries, have women become to be considered less sexual than men, if, throughout history, they were believed to have a much higher libido? Submitted by [deleted] t3_ykor9y on November 3, 2022 at 1:39 AM in history 29 comments 5
[deleted] OP t1_iuwzraj wrote on November 3, 2022 at 5:02 PM I am also intrigued by this reversal and its ideological naturalization in both cases. I think it is one of those questions which is too intersting to ever be answered satisfactorily, unfortunately Permalink 1
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