Submitted by ItaloSvevo111 t3_z3h2tn in history
Sgt_Colon t1_ixpkttl wrote
Reply to comment by teh_dumbest_man in Why Isn’t the New Testament in Latin? by ItaloSvevo111
It's worth noting that Dan is merely by his own words a "fan of History, not a historian", much less one working in their field of specialization.
teh_dumbest_man t1_ixqd8gj wrote
Thanks, that is a tiny bit disappointing but not at all surprising to learn. He is a talk radio guy making entertaining content. I wouldn't post that comment in /r/askhistorians , even as a third level comment, but in this more casual sub I'll leave it up.
1/10 is not as much a holocaust as 1/3. Although if somebody wanted to call it a genocide, maybe it would still fit the definition. It's been a couple years since I listened to it, not sure if it had "the intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group, as such".
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