Why is the Spanish colonial empire often said/implied to be "less focused on trade" or "not prioritising trade" compared to other empires like the Dutch, British, Portuguese etc.? Submitted by raori921 t3_zfpp4q on December 8, 2022 at 5:06 AM in history 56 comments 366
more_beans_mrtaggart t1_izelvrg wrote on December 8, 2022 at 3:27 PM Most colonialism is because of trade. The Spanish though.. they had to go much further to get to their colonies. In the end they were all about conquest and land claims. Permalink 2
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