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elmonoenano t1_izez1tp wrote

I've read a few books recently, and one of the things you see is that Spain did focus on trade, but mostly for the Crown and the Crown's favorites. You don't get a rise in banking. You don't get the creation of joint stock companies. You don't get an insurance industry. You don't get a growth of the merchant class. You do get a lot of smuggling.

Whereas, the British and Dutch especially, focused on a less top down form of trade. You get the development of risk reduction institutions like the joint stock company and companies like Lloyds of London that mitigate risk. You get institutions that facilitate the allocation of capital. You get exchanges that create visible price signals.

Spain conducted trade in a top down method that focused income back into the top. It was focused on using hard currency from the Americas to trade for high value items in Manila. It wasn't creative about it and it closed a lot of people off from the trade by keeping it a monopoly controlled by the crown. This didn't encourage risk taking or innovation. The Dutch and the English had freer trade systems, the value of the trade was more distributed which created more people able to participate. More people experimented and you get new institutions, you get new methods of efficiency, and so on.

There's also a lot of political institutional differences, especially from English parliament, that prevented some of the more wasteful military adventurism that Spain suffered from.

Frank Fukayama's The Origins of Political Order actually does a good job of highlighting some of the key differences, especially from the standpoint of administration. Spain just didn't invest in administering their territories and didn't develop them b/c there was little reason to. The wealth that could be potentially made would be concentrated into a few chosen subjects of the Crown, the Crown, and the Church. It didn't make sense to take big risks. Read it with 1493 by Charles Mann if you can.

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raori921 OP t1_j0ypa5t wrote

> Spain just didn't invest in administering their territories and didn't develop them b/c there was little reason to. The wealth that could be potentially made would be concentrated into a few chosen subjects of the Crown, the Crown, and the Church.

That has a few parallels with what would be called crony capitalism today, extracting resources and exploiting labour…not really to improve the economy in the homeland let alone the colonies, but more to pay off the Crown and the Church, and anyone they saw as their favourites.

I wonder if that's also why a lot of former Spanish colonies (including the Philippines!) tend to become pretty corrupt and sometimes have dictatorships and kleptocracies where leaders resort to similar kinds of cronyism.

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elmonoenano t1_j10e3v6 wrote

I think it has a big impact. Institutions are more important for good governance than they usually get credit for. These colonies set up extractive institutions, not institutions for widespread improvement. If you read about the Spanish bank when it was developed, it was basically entirely set up to hold money and then transfer it back to the crown, or to lend it to the crown. It wasn't set up to distribute capital and create liquidity to help the economy improve, especially in the colonies. There's been some good comparisons between Dutch, English, and Spanish banking and the impact on colonial development. You can find lots of papers like this: chrome-extension://efaidnbmnnnibpcajpcglclefindmkaj/https://www.econstor.eu/bitstream/10419/231550/1/49-2020-1-111-140.pdf

There was also the Banco de Isabel in the 1850s. But development economics has studied the issue quite a bit and it's worth spending a little time reading.

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