Submitted by McGillis_is_a_Char t3_10a3uri in history
berent1825 t1_j45gi17 wrote
I think that you can argue that the literature produced by the Ottomans itself is part of Arabic literature, in which case you can argue that the state of Arabic literature wasnt so bad.
Im referring to the great works of literature produced in Istanbul/Constantinople, not the ones produced by Arabians in the Arabia region occupied by the Ottomans. These can be considered as part of Arabic literature because the Ottoman language was very similar to Arabic and Farsi languages and the language used in this literature was particularly closer to Arabic and Farsi since the nobles of Istanbul wanted to separate their literature from that of the common folk by using more and more Arabic and Farsi in their writing.
zamakhtar t1_j48ffiu wrote
Couldn't believe how much Arabic is in Ottoman Turkish. It blew my mind when I checked out some manuscripts online. Before nationalism, Arabic, Farsi, and Turkish were syncretizing.
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