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deepeast_oakland t1_it4aa9a wrote

Is that what happened? Did the state present evidence to what the man "intended" to do when he chose that street to drive down?

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bannana t1_it4ce2e wrote

he doesn't have to have the intent early on or before turning down the street - he made the choice to harm when he saw people and kept driving and since he has a history of attempting to run over someone with a car this isn't new for him.

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deepeast_oakland t1_it4hue6 wrote

The OP was wondering why this guy wasn't being talked about the same way as

>Uvalde, Buffalo, Carolina, etc.

I'm pointing to the difference between these crimes and the one committed here.

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Bocephuss t1_it5ewec wrote

He was driving through a crowd of people with a deadly weapon.

I’m not sure how that’s much different than shooting into a crowd.

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vikingsquad t1_it4t2po wrote

That’s not what the legal definition of intent is. Intent in this instance refers to the fact that his actions had only one foreseeable outcome, which was death or grievous injury to the people along the path he drove his vehicle.

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