AnacharsisIV t1_je571nl wrote
Reply to comment by djdjddhdhdh in NYC teachers union’s workshop on ‘harmful effects of whiteness’ canceled after influx of ‘hate’ by someone_whoisthat
Sort of, yes.
See, "Latinx" was created in the US by English speakers. It is practically unpronounceable in Spanish or Portuguese. But it was created because there are nonbinary Latin people who do feel they are not represented by the grammar and gender inherent to their languages.
So while "Latinx" was made outside of Latin America, within it, the term "Latine" has been taking precedence. It's a word actually made by Latin people in Latin America to reflect their experiences, and it fits much more easily into the languages than "Latinx" does.
In my opinion, in English, we can just use "Latin" to describe a nonbinary or nongendered person or concept (in the same way we refer to "Latin America"), but in Spanish or Portuguese "Latine" would be more appropriate.
djdjddhdhdh t1_je632u8 wrote
That makes sense, ye the Latinx term I find people use to just describe any person from Latin America male/female or otherwise which just always sounded weird to me
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