No, it doesn’t. While the harm-harm rule is kinda imprecise, the basic idea is that every crime is a “harm” crime except for “victimless crimes” such as prostitution or drug crimes (though some judges may consider the sale of meth as a harm crime while other judges may not, so there’s still room for discretion). In any case, for example petit larceny (a misdemeanor) is a harm to property crime and would thus be a harm-harm crime. The same is true for many other misdemeanors.