Submitted by [deleted] t3_127jtik in personalfinance
Scr0bD0b t1_jeeesgo wrote
The owner of the house determines what fair rent is. Probably not 50% of the mortgage but if you're actually going to get married eventually then it won't matter anyways.
Splitting anything based on income hardly makes sense.
The rest is relationship advice, in terms of how you agree to split things. The fairest, healthiest way when married is 50/50 split unless 100% certain agreed not to for a variety of possible reasons.
[deleted] OP t1_jeegmks wrote
But what if for example B is currently earning less because a new job was just taken and A encouraged them to take it? That’s why we’ve also considered the income based approach - so both are fairly impacted by the change in salary and not just B
SilverRadicand t1_jeeiicz wrote
Yeah, this is all going to be relationship-based. You can do the market based rent and have of utilities thing for a regular roommate, but with the relationship and the adjustments and commitments one makes to each other based on said relationship add another dimension to the question.
lilfunky1 t1_jeem42f wrote
> But what if for example B is currently earning less because a new job was just taken and A encouraged them to take it?
that's a relationship thing, not a finance thing.
Scr0bD0b t1_jeeo2j0 wrote
Then you've already worked out what's fair and probably no point in asking here.
"I'm ok with you making less" is directly followed by "And here's how we'll agree to cover costs".
yes_its_him t1_jeejzxx wrote
If the owner of the house decides to offer a discount to market-based rent, that's going to depend on their overall assessment of the situation, and income change doesn't necessarily change anything about the situation (although it might, and probably would in this case.) Suppose one of the couple didn't have a change in base income, but did receive a huge inheritance. Then what?
Ordinarily if you rent, you don't take the landlord's income into consideration in terms of what you are willing to pay.
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