Submitted by BernardJOrtcutt t3_10v7bci in philosophy
Manbadger t1_j81i1ru wrote
Reply to comment by Fantastic-Ad8476 in /r/philosophy Open Discussion Thread | February 06, 2023 by BernardJOrtcutt
Did Derrida see the cognitive forming of a communicable signifier to be the same as the signifier expressed?
Physiologically an inner voice has similar brain activity as speech.
Thanks for the response. I have some dabbling to do!
Fantastic-Ad8476 t1_j8a4mwf wrote
You know I can’t say for sure. My inclination is to say that if he did have access to the 21st century neurolinguistic that we do he would probably not find them to alter his belief that “the text” was all consuming. My biggest crisis of confidence in semiotic thinking came when reading a piece on people who don’t have an inner monologue, and yet experience no real difference in linguistic ability. I will say I don’t think it was a particularly thorough article, but I do believe it’s accepted that there are people who can’t “hear” words inside their head.
Now, I did hear something else very interesting, in the same vein as what you mention about the brain activity of the inner voice—this time from the researcher himself being interviewed on a podcast. He said that when we read we actually imperceptibly speak the words we are reading. I think this provides a very interesting clue to consciousness. It could be seen as an echo reproduced from the recorded electrical signals (memory) of our brain.
This kind of interestingly ties in the-goku-special’s comment, because the question seems to then become: is the text just the phenomenological experience of the hypothetical reader?
But for Derrida, I think this would all make sense. Our brains, networks of nodes, electricity bouncing amount them—the effect, what we choose to call meaning or consciousness, if one chooses to see it within the same fabric of existence, within “the text”—there’s no difference.
So, essentially, yes I think Derrida would view the interior thought and the actual verbal signifier as distinct but closely related signifiers, which will produce unknown signification in whatever either cerebral cortices they encounter.
[deleted] t1_j8a616k wrote
[deleted]
Manbadger t1_j8a86y1 wrote
I wonder if those people without an inner voice still read as if they were speaking the words? Or how do they read or listen?
There is a clinical name for people without an inner voice, but I forget what it’s called. Im reminded of Alexithymia and Aphantasia, if only because those are other phenomena where something is lacking in what is usually common.
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