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CPEBachIsDead t1_iqqi8na wrote

In modern Greek, yes. It may surprise you to know that they weren’t speaking modern Greek in the premodern era.

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Mr_G_Dizzle t1_iqqja8k wrote

Care to tell us how they would pronounce it in the premodern era?

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Provokateur t1_iqsnkgd wrote

No one knows. No one has found a pronunciation guide from ancient Greece (and even if we did, it would be written in a language we didn't know how to pronounce, so it wouldn't help) and obviously we don't have audio recordings.

I've taken a few graduate classes in Classical philosophy, and in each the professor said that we don't have the correct pronunciation of terms, so we should just say it phonetically or however we prefer.

What matters is what Thomas More intended in the 16th century, which other comments speak to.

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WaddlingTriforce t1_iqqmnjq wrote

Probably something like: "Eh-oo-t-ο-p-os"

(I'm not certain exactly how the omicron was pronounced)

And know that the "Eu" later became the sound "you" as in Euphoria or Euclid, so it'd transform into "you-topia"

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Remon_Kewl t1_iqqvc3b wrote

Not only in modern greek. Pronunciation started shifting in the hellenistic era with the koine greek. Also, by the time this word was coined, the 16th century, the pronunciation was "eftopia".

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CPEBachIsDead t1_iqts5up wrote

And do you suppose Thomas More was intending to harken to the Greek of his day or of the ancients?

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Remon_Kewl t1_iqtu3km wrote

I'm gonna guess neither? Or he didn't really care, since utopia first of all isn't the greek form anyway, it's outopia, as others have said in here. Besides, it's not like the english pronunciation of eutopia is closer to the ancient Greek one than "eftopia". The point of the post the person above the one you answered to was that utopia and eutopia would be pronounced the same, which is false.

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