Submitted by lucaruns t3_y6agvm in philosophy
Imgell t1_iszctdq wrote
Reply to comment by BillBigsB in On Reading Literature as Philosophy by lucaruns
This is with regards to the very interesting question at the very end: I think philosophy and literature are able to approach a specific topic from different angles and the philosophers you mentioned must have noticed that. (I really enjoyed the passage of OP’s essay where he explained that Maugham enabled him to better access certain topics of Spinoza.) You could also make the argument that philosophy and literature are not as different as mainly philosophers like to think. With the exception of formal logic, philosophy relies on the very unreliable medium of language to relate some sort of truth knowledge. If you read for example Nietzsche or Wittgenstein, you cannot deny that they use literary devices to bring their point across, that their language is downright poetic sometimes.
BillBigsB t1_iuh0kax wrote
“it is not enough for a legislator to make his people "see objects as they are"; he must also sometimes make them see objects "as they should appear to be" (Rousseau, 1979, p. 67). There are passages outside of the Social Contract in which he elaborates on the differences between the communication of a theoretical doctrine to philosophers and a variety of popular presentations to an unenlightened multitude. As an author of treatises, novels, plays, poems, and operas, Rousseau had good reason to reflect on this question, and it is one of the most frequently recurring issues in his work. “
”to persuade without convincing”: the language of Rousseau’s legislator
-Christopher kelly
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