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M-3X t1_isuiiz6 wrote

Reply to comment by Neat_Youth470 in Severe COVID-19 may increase the risk for schizophrenia by chrisdh79

How do you explain then your condition and the fact you didn't have covid?

Simplest explanations are usually closest to the truth.

Correlations do not imply causality.

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Neat_Youth470 t1_isujxn9 wrote

“So far as we know”, since you’re targeting that sentence, let’s use the entire statement, thank you.

I have not had a serology. I have had negative rapid home tests.

I am curious as to if I had a very mild form before or after their bouts that I did not test during that time for, or one of the home tests that I took was a false negative. There’s a large margin of error regarding incubation times and low viral load.

https://www.fda.gov/medical-devices/safety-communications/home-covid-19-antigen-tests-take-steps-reduce-your-risk-false-negative-fda-safety-communication#:~:text=However%2C%20if%20you%20perform%20an,t%20have%20COVID-19%20symptoms.

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youth-in-asia18 t1_isuod3j wrote

sounds like you’re genetically predisposed and so is your wife, which would make your kids predisposed. I don’t think epigenetics is necessary to explain; although i’m honestly not sure what you mean by epigenetics here. best of luck with your diagnoses

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