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ajaxsinger t1_j4n3svg wrote

I had (have) a post-viral sequelae from a swine-flu infection in 2010, so I'm very aware of the possibility of a post-viral syndrome from other viral infections and I've wondered the same.

I think the biggest difference is the sheer number of infections. Even if COVID causes no greater percentage of sequelae, 10% of COVID infections is orders of magnitude greater than 10% of influenza infections.

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[deleted] t1_j4n3yzi wrote

That’s a good point. I had a post viral illness from the flu in 2017 that lingered for at least six or seven months. It sucked. I imagine the scale of infections here are a big contributor.

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