Submitted by IntoThePeople t3_11dvn23 in sports
tyrannomachy t1_jabfore wrote
Reply to comment by IntoThePeople in New Zealand defeat England by 1 run in the 2nd Test Match at Wellington by IntoThePeople
I realize this isn't what happened here, but wouldn't a team that bats second and trails to start their second innings normally win by one? Assuming they won, I mean.
BLAGTIER t1_jabhdcg wrote
The bowling team in the fourth innings wins by runs and the batting team winnings by wickets. So if England had score 2 more runs they would have won by 1 wicket. Basically whatever you are defending runs or wickets is what you win by.
ArthurFunkyMiller t1_jacts0v wrote
If the team that's batting second successfully chases down the total, they win by the amount of wickets they had in hand instead. In this case, if England won in that last over, getting to say 9/258, they would still have one wicket in hand, and that would be the margin.
[deleted] t1_jabgfxz wrote
[removed]
TheNextBattalion t1_jadsy5t wrote
Great question but cricket logic says no: they win by wickets (left)
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