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HolyPommeDeTerre t1_j9pcfo8 wrote

Reply to comment by NZGumboot in Physicists Use Quantum Mechanics to Pull Energy out of Nothing by Vailhem

Just trying to understand.

If the other part sends 1 continuously and you know that (communication initialisation). You send 1 to ack "alignment". Then do the same with 0.

The question is. If I send 1 continuously, will the resulting behaviour in the entangle particule be the same or similar in anyway? Or will it change randomly and so we can't "align" on something without another communication method before?

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NZGumboot t1_j9q2gh0 wrote

The information you send over a wire doesn't change the entangled particles in any way (or do you mean sending a 1 using the entangled pair? That's not possible, the entanglement breaks). What does change the particles is any attempt to measure or change the particle's properties. (With regard to OPs article I believe they are measuring the environment around the particle, not the particle itself, in order to maintain the entanglement.)

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HolyPommeDeTerre t1_j9q4m9k wrote

Yes my intuition was "input 1 in one of the particle" (change it's state in a expected way) to observe the behaviour of the other entangled particle. But as you state that, influencing the state of the particle will break entanglement.

But, from there, how are we sure the particles are entangled if we can't act on any of them and reflect a resulting change in the other particle.

I guess we can observe both particles surrounding environment and see that there are similitudes ?

Anyway thank you for your time helping me understand :)

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NZGumboot t1_j9q7l51 wrote

Basically what they do is create a huge number of entangled particles, separate each pair into locations A and B, then measure each the state of all of the particles at both locations (this breaks the entanglement, but that's okay.)

The measurements at A and B appear perfectly random according to all the tests of randomness that we have. But when you bring the measurements from A and B together, you find that they are correlated -- each pair might be e.g. in the same state, or the opposite state, depending on how the entanglement was created. A and B can be arbitrarily far apart.

You might think, well that's easy to explain, when you created the entanglement it set the state of each at that point. But no, you can prove that isn't the case, and that it must be the case that the entangled particles both have an indefinite state until they're measured, and the measurement of one affects the state of the other across any distance. (The proof is called Bell's inequality, see this video for more: https://youtu.be/ZuvK-od647c)

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HolyPommeDeTerre t1_j9q94lp wrote

Thank you very much. You are gluing multiple things I have in my head together. It's a very clear explanation.

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