bigfatfurrytexan t1_jdb2yry wrote on March 23, 2023 at 2:47 AM

Reply to comment by pinkcheems in TIL China and India have been the population centers of the world for at least 6,000 years by aaleom

Hmm...I'd need to see evidence that goods weren't traded at that time. I don't believe that's true.

pinkcheems t1_jdb3b8x wrote on March 23, 2023 at 2:50 AM

How trading is related to luxury?

bigfatfurrytexan t1_jdb3m9a wrote on March 23, 2023 at 2:52 AM

Luxury is defined by availability. A few people growing rice for themselves on a riverbank doesn't create rice from it's archaic form. Availability is defined by existence, then a trade route to acquire other goods.

This is the human way, especially in India.

pinkcheems t1_jdb5qdb wrote on March 23, 2023 at 3:09 AM

Indus valley civilization worked on a community level not on the individual level. Everything they had was distributed equally. For example there was no division of houses between rich, poor, king, soldiers. All the houses in IVC were equipped with same facilities. Your initial point of argument was that rice and wheat developed very recently but when I provided you sources then you changed your argument and started spewing random bullshit like it was luxury. Man atleast stick to your point.

bigfatfurrytexan t1_jdc6x7z wrote on March 23, 2023 at 10:50 AM

They didn't develop recently, and that wasn't the initial point. The initial point, and the one I asserted, was that it wasn't a widespread staple crop. Because it wasn't Millet was. Rice only recently became a global staple crop.