Also, a concrete answer to the question doesn't really exist since the number of differences vary depending on how you count them.
Some stretches of DNA do multiple, overlapping things, so is that counted as one difference or four? Some stretches of DNA can be the same in two people, but epigenetically expressed in one but not the other, so is that counted as one difference or none?
RantingRobot t1_ishhfay wrote
Reply to comment by danby in When it's said 99.9% of human DNA is the same in all humans, is this referring to only coding DNA or both coding and non-coding DNA combined? by PeanutSalsa
Also, a concrete answer to the question doesn't really exist since the number of differences vary depending on how you count them.
Some stretches of DNA do multiple, overlapping things, so is that counted as one difference or four? Some stretches of DNA can be the same in two people, but epigenetically expressed in one but not the other, so is that counted as one difference or none?
The number will always be kind of a guestimate.