Tex089

Tex089 t1_j1w2v4j wrote

I appreciate the answer. I'm still not sure I understand the classification. If all European peoples arrived via migration, and both peoples settled in their respective areas at the same time, then by that criteria either both or neither would be considered indigenous Europeans, with later colonization only affecting the indigenous status of that specific area.

Apologies if that doesn't make sense, or seems confrontational. I'm ignorant on this subject and just trying to understand.

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