I didn't see rules against it, and the post was an attempt to rectify a different post by another user who posted a "loaded question" by making the question more clearly worded, in order to express a question with goals of receiving a factual response. Refer to this post for more clarity.
It would be a shame for people to miss out on information because of a misworded prompt or question.
Try filling your mouth with water and then trying to push it out through a straw. Now try cutting 4/5 of the straw off, and repeat the experiment with the much shorter straw. Barely any pressure is needed for the short straw while you'll find it requires a bit more pressure with the longer straw. In a sense, males need to push a bit more to overcome the pressure, while females may end up with the same results from just allowing their muscles to relax.
For the non-ELI5 answer: Female urethra is generally a fifth of the length of the male urethra. In addition, the rhabdosphincter (external sphincter muscle for urethra) is significantly thinner in females. Because of the above stated, females would require less pressure to void the bladder.
magipod OP t1_iy5vu41 wrote
Reply to comment by heidismiles in ELI5: Why is the number of women who suffer from urinary incontinence twice that of men? by magipod
I didn't see rules against it, and the post was an attempt to rectify a different post by another user who posted a "loaded question" by making the question more clearly worded, in order to express a question with goals of receiving a factual response. Refer to this post for more clarity.
It would be a shame for people to miss out on information because of a misworded prompt or question.